So, I’m going to face the chance of ridicule here and ask everyone’s opinion on a few things that I chased down a rabbit hole. But I think it’s worth some discussion, or at the very least, furthering MY knowledge on the topic.
Fat-Loss vs. Hyperplasia/hyperteophy
- is there a significant difference between administering the GH sub-q (systemic IGF-1 release from liver), and administering the GH I.M., targeted at specific muscles where localized IGF-1 expression takes place?
- Or might the difference between local/systemic be negated by taking 6iu’s at night, which then by 8am, the max amount of benefit (1.5ius) would be present anyway (based on half-life)?
-Now, I don’t run anywhere near that dosage, as I hold water at 4iu’s, but if I am aiming for muscle growth instead of fat-loss or anti-aging as my primary result, does mode of administration make that big of a difference?
There is much more I could add and/or ask regarding this rabbit hole (estrogen beta receptor function, E2 levels commensurate with GH conversion, etc), but I honestly don’t know enough about it to properly articulate the questions and will most likely sound worse than I already do.
Thanks fellas