Im having a hard time understanding this. Let me explain...
*His first week consisted of 2, 400mg pins, which his schedule is Sundays and Wednesdays.
*His second consisted of again 2 pins, but this time being 400mg the first, and 300mg the second.
*His third week, again 2 pins at 300mg each.
*Fourth and final week before testing, again another 2 pins at 300mg each. Now being that he said his schedule is based on a Sunday and Wednesdy routine, I'm willing to bet he got tested 7 days later on a Wednesdy.
*His last 3 pins were at 300mg of Test E. Days being Nov. 28, Dec. 2, and Dec. 5. Testing 7 days later after a 300mg pin would make his numbers passing for the 300mg protocol correct?
**Here is my issue:
If his last pin 7 days before testing was 600mg, I'm willing to bet his results would have came back higher. But being that his last pin was 300mg, and the last pin before that was 300mg 3 days prior, that wouldn't help with a 600mg protocol. As the hormone from the second to last pin would be "fading," and I use that word very softly.
Again, I'm sure if he pinned 600mg 7 days before his labs results would have came back passing. As protocol goes for 600mg a week, total test needed for that would be 3,330mg in 4 weeks. Darkshadowlander used a total of 2,700mg in his 4 weeks before the testing.
Just want Darkshadowlander to know I'm not calling him out. I just want to understand and learn just like anybody else...
